The first version – has been paid – is correct. That’s because what you are talking about is a sum of money. A sum of money is a singular entity. The sentence ‘£50,000 have been paid’ would suggest the payment was made in the form of 50,000 distinct units, i.e. coins.

Is to be paid or has to be paid?

Both are grammatically correct depending on the context. “I had paid” implies that you are looking into the past and at that time in the past, you had already paid the fees. “I have paid” looks at it in the present time and says that as it now currently stands, I have paid the fees.

Has been paid in a sentence?

Attention has been paid. only $17.49 has been paid back. It has been paid £90m. A debt has been paid.

Have been paying meaning?

You pay someone for something you are buying. You don’t pay the thing you are buying. So, the correct way to say these is: The goods have been paid for. This means we have finished paying for the goods, and we don’t need to pay again.

Will be paid is correct grammar?

The correct past tense of the verb pay is paid, as long as the word is used in the financial or transactional sense. The correct form is “to be paid”.

What is a assertive sentence?

Definition of Assertive/Declarative Sentence: The sentence which declares or asserts a statement, feeling, opinion, incident, event, history, or anything is called an assertive sentence. An assertive sentence ends with a period (.). Assertive sentences can be either affirmative or negative.

Has been or had been examples?

For example, if I started studying art when I was 13 years old and I am still studying art, I would say “I have been studying art since I was 13 years old.” “Had been” is the past perfect tense and is used in all cases, singular and plural.

Which one is a correct sentence?

In order for a sentence to be grammatically correct, the subject and verb must both be singular or plural. In other words, the subject and verb must agree with one another in their tense. If the subject is in plural form, the verb should also be in plur al form (and vice versa).

What does it mean when it says it has been paid?

he/she/it has paid, he/she/it has been paid, he/she/it has been paying, he/she/it has been being paid. we have paid, we have been paid, we have been paying This option will automatically close an order after it has been paid and fulfilled.

Which is correct ” I had paid the fees ” or ” I have paid “?

Both are grammatically correct depending on the context. “I had paid” implies that you are looking into the past and at that time in the past, you had already paid the fees. “I have paid” looks at it in the present time and says that as it now currently stands, I have paid the fees. It sounds like, in context, “I have paid” would probably fit best.

Which is correct ” has not paid ” or ” did not pay “?

They are both correct, but they are two different verb tenses. If you are still expecting the customer to pay, it should be “has not paid”, but if the customer is long gone, it should be “did not pay”.

When to use ” the customer did not pay “?

“The customer did not pay” is appropriate when the speaker or writer wishes to communicate that the action (not paying) is finished; the customer will not pay in the future. Unfinished action uses the verb “to have” plus a past particlple , “paid”. Finished action uses the simple past.